Moses heard the people weeping throughout their clans, everyone at the door of his tent. And the anger of the LORD blazed hotly, and Moses was displeased. 11 Moses said to the LORD, "Why have you dealt ill with your servant? And why have I not found favor in your sight, that you lay the burden of all this people on me? 12 Did I conceive all this people? Did I give them birth, that you should say to me, 'Carry them in your bosom, as a nurse carries a nursing child,' to the land that you swore to give their fathers? 13 Where am I to get meat to give to all this people? For they weep before me and say, 'Give us meat, that we may eat.' 14 I am not able to carry all this people alone; the burden is too heavy for me. 15 If you will treat me like this, kill me at once, if I find favor in your sight, that I may not see my wretchedness." (Num 11:10-15)
The 'offending' pronoun is highlighted above in v. 15. Note the context: Moses asks Yhwh,
"Did I conceive all this people?"
"Did I give them birth, that you should say to me, 'Carry them in your bosom, as a nurse carries a nursing child,' to the land that you swore to give their fathers?"
The implied answer to both questions is "No! Yhwh did!"
Yhwh conceived Israel. Yhwh gave birth to Israel. Yhwh carried Israel in his bosom to the Promised Land.
In this context Moses uses the second person feminine singular pronoun ('at) of Yhwh. Yhwh is imaged here as a mother so this makes sense. But it is also unique. Nowhere else in the Hebrew Bible is Yhwh referred to by a feminine pronoun (which leads some to think the text corrupt or that it contains a rare, contracted form of the masculine pronoun which is identical to the feminine).
So gentlefolk - what theological reflections might one draw from Num 11:15? (This is a real question not a question leading to a predetermined answer)

